apollo1201, on 2016-April-29, 12:07, said:
Sry for the digression but can someone pls explain why 2NT is better w/o fit vs. 2NT = super acceptance? If respondent is very weak the hand needs to be played in 3C regardless of the fit so to rightside the contract, 3C = no fit (most common answer) is best. When opener super accepts, some of the weak hands will choose 3NT so less hands will be played in 3C anyway so no need to have them bid by opener.
Or did I miss sth?
I agree on 2NT openings, opener bids NT if he doesnt like respondent's minor, but in that case responder is GF+, not here.
Or did I miss sth?
I agree on 2NT openings, opener bids NT if he doesnt like respondent's minor, but in that case responder is GF+, not here.
Another reason for using 3C as the superaccept rather than 2NT is that the club hand is dummy when you know its strength and hidden when you don't. In other words:
1N - 2S; 3C (superaccept) - Pass
We know responder is weak, but the hand is dummy.
1N - 2S; 2NT (no superaccept) - 3C
Responder's hand is either weak or invitational and is hidden.
Contrast this to using 2NT as the superaccept.