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Though I failed to pinpoint the exact source for the general requirement referenced here, it is common knowledge that both players in a pair have to use the same system. But I've started to wonder why law-givers introduced it and what was their intent and, consequeently, what does it actually means - where is a watershed between style and method.
As an example:
1) Suppose, partners could not agree on the style of preempts, one preferring solid preeempts and the other - wild ones. In the end they decided that each would use his own preference and partner would bid accordingly (properly disclosing the style when asked, of course). Is it legal?
2) Suppose, a bidding system has 1m-3NT defined as "to play" and "1m-3s" defined as a puppet to 3NT, which may be passed out. The partnership is supposed to use one route or another according to their judgement. But it happens that one of the partners is much better declarer than the other, so they judge it advantageous that he would be declaring all their 3NT contracts. Is it legal as a discussed agreement? Is it legal if it is implicit?
The questions above are not meant as "can you get away with that?" - you probably can, - but as whether such consctructs are meant to be banned or allowed.