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What is this bid in std methods ?

#1 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 09:16

1(x)-DBL-(pass)-3x ?

Please also tell me the difference, if any, when the x suit is a minor and when it is a major.

If there is no std for it, please tell me how you and your pd play it.

Thanks
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#2 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 09:55

I don't know if there's a standard meaning. The two meanings I have played are:
- Asking for a stopper, with something like AK10xxx of a minor and nothing else.
- One-suited slam try in an unspecified suit (or unspecified major).
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 09:58

3 of a suit over the one-bid looks like one of our opening 3-bids in our style.
3 in a suit under is a mama-papa 5+ suit with 9-11 or so expected.
3 of their suit ---don't think I have ever done that. Will await some good answers.
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#4 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 10:01

View Postaguahombre, on 2013-July-14, 09:58, said:

3 of a suit over the one-bid looks like one of our opening 3-bids in our style.
3 in a suit under is a mama-papa 5+ suit with 9-11 or so expected.
3 of their suit ---don't think I have ever done that. Will await some good answers.


I meant the x suit is the suit they opened with. Sorry if this was not clear. So basically i am asking a jump cuebid when pd doubled and RHO passed.
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 10:22

There is no standard, and I also think its a very misused bid (for the lack of utility given)
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#6 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 10:22

Never specifically discussed this, but it seems like a stopper-ask by general principles.
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#7 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 11:30

We play it as a single-suited game force in a (or the other) major. Also if third hand bids at the 1-level (e.g. 1D dbl 1H 3D - still an unspecified major)
I don't think there is a standard.
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#8 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-July-14, 22:51

I strongly suspect that most of my partners, if I made this bid, would have no clue what it meant. But then most of my current partners, when I suggest that we should discuss such things, are not interested.

I probably need some new partners. :blink:
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#9 User is offline   IVAN CY LO 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 02:09

If X is major, I would think this jump cue is asking for stopper.

If X is minor, splinter and GF in major suit, probably holding 5440 or 5431 or 5530 with short in opener suit.
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#10 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 03:01

There is no standard meaning that I know of. Most of the sensible meanings have already been mentioned but one that has not come up yet is differentiating between 4 and 5 card jumps; so (1) - X - (P) - 3 could be played as extras with 5+ spades. Some players even give up a 3 advance for this so it has to be sound. Of course, this does not work if their suit is spades and if their suit were a minor, you would have to choose which major was shown. It is probably not even worth the effort to even define the bid for non-expert partnerships. As Adam wrote, it will often be defined as a stopper-ask just by general meta-rules.
(-: Zel :-)
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#11 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 07:33

I'd think it's a stopper ask, although I don't think it's good use and moreover I don't think I've ever encountered this auction. Doubler rates to be short in opener's suit, so usually he doesn't have a stopper anyway.
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#12 User is offline   chasetb 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 13:38

I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?
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#13 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 13:52

In standard methods it has no meaning.
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#14 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 13:55

View Postchasetb, on 2013-July-17, 13:38, said:

I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?


Meckwell [and others] play 1D (1M) 3M as a transfer to 3N to put overcaller on lead. Why would you choose to put opener's partner on lead after 1M-X-P?

After 1x - (X) lots of bids are raises of x, it would make no sense to play the same scheme after (1x)-X-(P).

Add me to the chorus of people who haven't discussed the call and wouldn't make it at the table.
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#15 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 15:24

Source of tricks bid asking for a stopper. AKJTxx(x) is enough if you live for danger. If the doubler can't bid 3nt, cheapest suit works as we always have a landing spot
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#16 User is offline   yunling 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 09:23

View Postchasetb, on 2013-July-17, 13:38, said:

I'm pretty sure that Meckwell use (1M) - X - (P) - 3M as a transfer to 3NT. I don't know, but I could see (1m) - X - (P) - 3m as the same. I know Garozzo, in his system Ambra, came up with uses for every bid up to and including 3NT on 1x - (X), so why not just use those same bids?


As I know, though Garozzo use transfers on 2x or higher bids, he wrote that 3x-1 shows a GF balanced hand, which (I think) is just a stopper ask.
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