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After a redouble

#1 User is offline   pbonfanti 

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Posted 2012-April-01, 16:01

A partner and I were discussing some sequences by advancer after partner's double is redoubled. In each case, the auction begins:

P - P - 1 - DBL -
RDBL -

Consider four options by advancer:

(1) Bid 2 directly
(2) Pass, then after opener passes, raise partner's bid (let's say it's 1 for simplicity) to 2
(3) Pass, then raise partner's 1 to 3
(4) Pass, then bid 2 over partner's 1 after redoubler passes (or cue diamonds if redoubler acts).

We feel that (1) is an attempt to play 2; that (2) is obstructive; and that (4) is invitational, essentially exposing a psych. We're not sure about (3): it seems that a hand that wanted to preempt should have bid immediately, so perhaps it's a distributional game invitation (Axxxx/Kxxxx/x/xx for example). However, we're not sure to what degree our opinions represent standard agreements. Any thoughts are appreciated.
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#2 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2012-April-01, 16:52

My opinion is that after 1m opening pass should be penalty. After 1M I prefer pass being no attractive bid.
I would especially like to play that in lands of better minor and precision when often 1D redoubled is our best spot.
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#3 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-April-02, 01:44

(1) Weakish with both majors, to teach the opponents not to make stupid redoubles. I've never had a hand where I wanted to bid 2 expecting to make it, If I thought 2 was our cheapest negative, I could pass and then run to 2 whne we got doubled somewhere else.
(2) A hand that wants to compte the partscore, eg a balanced 6-count with four-card support.
(3) Invitational, exposing a psyche
(4) Exposing a psyche, the same values as 1 dbl pass 2.

Against a 3+ card minor, hands where you want to defend 1xx are very rare, in my experience.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#4 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2012-April-02, 01:54

Quote

Against a 3+ card minor, hands where you want to defend 1♦xx are very rare, in my experience.


I agree with this. Still, hands where we don't have convenient bid after 1m - dbl - rdbl are even more rare.
I play only vs diamonds 4+ (or 5+ or 4-4-4-1 or 4-5minors) my all life and I already encountered several hands when I wanted to pass 1D redoubled. The situation is different after 1M, especially after 1S because then we often have several possible places to play and want to offer a choice to partner.

Also I think that after rdbl you should be very aggressive and bid routinely 2S with any 5 spades or good four. People redouble too much and it pays off to jump to their throat with garbage when they can't profitably double you. For example: KTxxx xx xxx xxx is easy 2S imo. I wouldn't ever pass with any hand with half decent suit.
The only other meaning of pass than penalty which makes sense imo is 3-3 in majors exactly without 5 clubs (with 3-2 we are not comfortable anyway if partner bids our 2 card major so it's better to bid 3 card major ourselves hoping they can't double that).
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-April-02, 02:15

View Postbluecalm, on 2012-April-02, 01:54, said:

The only other meaning of pass than penalty which makes sense imo is 3-3 in majors exactly without 5 clubs (with 3-2 we are not comfortable anyway if partner bids our 2 card major so it's better to bid 3 card major ourselves hoping they can't double that).

So with 3424 opposite 3244 you play in 1x? Marvellous.

You can use pass on a rather wider range of hands than you suggest. For example:
- Pass then convert 1 to 1 offers a choice between spades and clubs
- With 2344 or 2434, you pass to see if partner has four hearts. If he bids 1, you convert to 2.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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