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duck or take trick one problem

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-February-10, 18:18

xx
K10xx
Jx
AQ843

We vul, they nv, IMPs.

(1 NT)-pass-(2)-X
(pass!)-pass-(XX)-pass
( 2 !)-pass-(3NT)-all pass

you doubled 2 clubs and then you find declarer has shown no club stopper (pass) and no 4 card major (2)

partner leads 10, consistent with 10x, 109x, 109xx


dummy has

QJxx
Jxx
Kxxx
K3

declarer plays 3 from dummy, your turn.
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#2 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2011-February-10, 20:42

Q and 4.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#3 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2011-February-10, 21:05

I think I would play declarer for Jxx. It's close though. If declarer has Jx, I might have just let declarer make an impossible contract. By the way, if I took the Q, then I would play A and then hope partner works out to unblock. Given that declarer will have played the J, it should be pretty obvious.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-February-12, 14:30

There was a missexplanation here, 2 was intended as natural

declarer had

AKxx
Qxx
AQxx
Jx
0

#5 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-February-13, 12:56

I hope the TD changed it to 3N-3?
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#6 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-February-19, 08:47

View PostFluffy, on 2011-February-12, 14:30, said:

There was a missexplanation here, 2 was intended as natural

declarer had

AKxx
Qxx
AQxx
Jx


That makes a bit of a difference. With no 4-card major, declarer is bound to have at least 3 clubs: with 3352 he would probably have bid 2 2nd round and besides that shape is only one of the many possible. Therefore you have a very strong case for ducking the club or play Q + small (this one is probably better, because it makes it clearer for pard).

If 2 is intended as natural, then QA is a lot more attractive. I don't say one'd play like that 100% of the time, but at least 50% or so would be normal. Frequency-based score adjustment is a possibility (i.e. 50% of 3NT-1, 50% of 3NT=).

HOWEVER, if 2 is the correct, systemic, explanation, then no redress is due.
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