East dealer, all vul, mp.
N: spade Q 8 7 2
heart A J 10 6
diamond K 8
club 6 4 2
---------
S: spade K 10 6
heart Q 8
diamond A Q J 3
club J 10 8 5
---------
W N E S
- - p 1D
1H X p 2C
p 2D p p
p
------------
N argues that I (South) should have asked heart control bidding 2H instead of 2C.
I think that he has good enough hearts to bid 2NT instead of 2D.
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How to reach NT after oppponents intervention?
#2
Posted 2026-June-12, 02:03
thjj, on 2026-June-12, 01:45, said:
East dealer, all vul, mp.
N: spade Q 8 7 2
heart A J 10 6
diamond K 8
club 6 4 2
---------
S: spade K 10 6
heart Q 8
diamond A Q J 3
club J 10 8 5
---------
W N E S
- - p 1D
1H X p 2C
p 2D p p
p
------------
N argues that I (South) should have asked heart control bidding 2H instead of 2C.
I think that he has good enough hearts to bid 2NT instead of 2D.
N: spade Q 8 7 2
heart A J 10 6
diamond K 8
club 6 4 2
---------
S: spade K 10 6
heart Q 8
diamond A Q J 3
club J 10 8 5
---------
W N E S
- - p 1D
1H X p 2C
p 2D p p
p
------------
N argues that I (South) should have asked heart control bidding 2H instead of 2C.
I think that he has good enough hearts to bid 2NT instead of 2D.
Welcome to the bridge forums.
I would strongly recommend you both read some basic beginning bridge books that hopefully are free at you local bridge club. Many local clubs have beginner lessons.
Unfortunately both partners are incorrect in understanding what is going on here.
Good luck, best wishes
#3
Posted 2026-June-12, 03:49
East's double shows the unbid suits (spades and clubs) which he doesn't have here. His best call at second turn is pass.
West's 2♣ bid is normal: partner has shown both black suits so there should be an 8+ card fit.
East's 2♦ bid is strange: maybe he is trying to make up for the initial double? He should just pass 2♣.
My preferred auction would be to pass throughout with both hands, and let opponents declare (most likely they will try 1NT). We should be able to set them two tricks for +200 which is better than declaring any contract from our side (unless we can bid and make game, which is very unlikely here).
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#5
Posted 2026-June-12, 07:12
The issue is S rebid. That describes a real 2-suiter with 5+ D and 4+C (or the reverse for some pairs). The correct rebid is 1NT that does not promise a stopper in this forced situation. Indeed when you have no repeatable suit or 2-suiter and no fit for partner s S, what can you do as you cannot leave it in.
Here Qx is even better to receive the lead and you could also agree that 1S is exactly 3-cd raise while 2S is 4-cd (same bid as unobstructed, partner would have bid 1S and you 2S). So 2 possible better calls as more descriptive than 2C.
Partner took a conservative view by giving preference to your supposed D suit. Hardly criticizable. 2NT is a small stretch but 10 HCPs with H well stopped and a useful DK can awake greed red at IMPs; at MPs like here it is riskier but 120 beats 110.
Last, 2D is pretty odds on seeing both hands.
Here Qx is even better to receive the lead and you could also agree that 1S is exactly 3-cd raise while 2S is 4-cd (same bid as unobstructed, partner would have bid 1S and you 2S). So 2 possible better calls as more descriptive than 2C.
Partner took a conservative view by giving preference to your supposed D suit. Hardly criticizable. 2NT is a small stretch but 10 HCPs with H well stopped and a useful DK can awake greed red at IMPs; at MPs like here it is riskier but 120 beats 110.
Last, 2D is pretty odds on seeing both hands.
#6
Posted Yesterday, 08:20
You should bid 1♠ at your second turn, after which North can bid NT. You may not reach the borderline game but at least will have a sensible auction. North has likely downgraded their hand based on the expected misfit indicated by your choice of 2♣. Their actual argument is bogus though - the Opener's hand is not good enough for a 2♥ cue rebid and after 2♣ - 2♦, it is correct for South to pass.
(-: Zel :-)
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