P_Marlowe, on 2024-June-23, 00:38, said:
Hi,
I did hold
♠
♥ AT9xxx
♦Jxxx
♣ KQx
and I clearly intended the bid as a control bid, agreeing diamonds.
6D is a pretty good contract.
As said, I was thinking at the time, it was clearcut, but the answer showed, I was wrong.
I did choose 4C instead of 3H, because I thought 3H would show 6+ hearts, but bypassing 3NT,
should clearly indicate, that the bid is intended as a control bid.
I felt, that 4D would be less helpful for partner, the spade void is bad, but maybe this was
overthinking.
With kind regards
Marlowe
I do not buy this.
Scoring does not matter, but what your system was and your agreements do.
I understand of course that you did not have an agreement about the last bid.
From your 1NT being semi forcing I deduce that 2/1 was game forcing.
But what was 1S-3C and what was 1S-4C?
Even if 1S-3C was natural and required at least invitational strength and 1S-4C would have been a splinter, you might hold a weak hand with long clubs. Many play even 1S-5C as exclusion key-card.
What are you supposed to do with a weak hand and long clubs after partner showed a game forcing hand with 5 spades and 4 diamonds?
With a fit there are many ways you can bid. Since 3D was game forcing, what is wrong with a simple raise?
With a misfit in a game forcing scenario and a long suit, you must be capable of introducing your suit.
After all game or slam may only be available there.
I am for a simple meta agreement. If there has been no agreement about a bid and a natural interpretation makes any sense at all, the meaning is such.