jillybean, on 2023-February-04, 16:03, said:
Discussing this with partner, they would rather open A65,KJ865,A2,Q82 1♥ and rebid 2♣/1♠. My Q is are we bypassing what could be the best contract (1NT)
and this is one of the reasons we are playing 12-14NT
You mean a 12-14 1NT rebid? Yes that makes sense.
If you play 5-card majors and don't open a 5M332 hand 1NT, then your 1M followups don't depend on your notrump range.
This is because a 1M opening simply means "I have a 5-card major and 12-19 points, balanced or unbalanced". The meaning of the 1M opening is not affected by your notrump range, so the follow-ups shouldn't be either.
With balanced hands, after
1
♥-1
♠
?
you rebid 1NT with a minimum and 2
♣ (maybe 2
♦ with 3532?) with more. Classically, 1NT is 12-14 while 2
♣ includes 15-17 bal.
It is maybe also worth discussing with p under which curcumstances you raise 1
♠ with 3-card support and a balanced hand. Maybe you should do that only with a bit extra, say 14-16, so that the disapointing shape is compensated by a bit extra power. In any case, it takes a bit of the strain on the 1NT and 2
♣ rebids as it is only with exactly 2=5=3=3 that you don't have 3-card support
It is different with minor suit openings:
1m-1
♠
?
Pairs who play strong notrump often agree to rebid 1NT with minimum 1444, 1435, 1345 and 1453, maybe even 1354. So an unbalanced hand becomes balanced once partner bids your singleton. Playing a weak NT, most pairs agree that the 1NT rebid shows 15-17 so they will have to bypass 1NT with the minimum misfitting hands, which is less than ideal, as you say.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket