Posted 2022-January-03, 11:55
It's very usual to have 2♥ Natural and Forcing, as it is here.
East psyched. That's also legal, "provided that partner has no more reason than the opponents to be aware of the deviation." That doesn't just mean UI.
West, with AJx and a diamond suit that is, to give it credit, threadbare, guessed to pass a "choice of games" (was it?) 3NT. Which, when it caught a stiff heart, enough diamonds to make them run, and no heart lead, came home for a great score. Frankly, even if it went down, it would be a great score against the field's 3 or 4 hearts or 10 diamonds.
It might have just been luck. It might have been good bridge and good guessing. Or West might have had some "help" guessing, and that help might not have been "GBK". The question is whether there is enough evidence of "be aware" from the hand itself, and any questions asked of the pair, to rule that there was a violation of Law 40C1.
Different SOs have different ideas on how to determine this. But one of them is definitely "see if unaware people would do it". I see elsewhere that about 25-30% of polled players did pass 3NT with that hand. Is that enough to overcome "West had reason to guess this was happening", or worse yet, "West has experience that East has done this before" (that he did not share with N/S), or worse yet "unspoken agreement not to pull 3NT to 4M in these auctions"?
Hence the question asked in the OP: "what questions do you ask to investigate this?"
Psyches, as I said, are legal. Some handling of psychics are more suspicious than others. This is one of the suspicious ones. So, in answer to your question, "there may not have been. But there very easily could have been. And it's the directors' job to investigate and decide."
A similar question, from years ago: back in the day, there was a section on the ACBL convention card on psychic tendencies. Everybody just checked "rare" in case the once-in-a-lifetime one came up for them or, more likely, they misbid (yes, I know, but that's what happened). One of my partners and I checked "Frequent", and circled it once or twice. I don't think we ever had an idea on what psychics would happen (partner once psyched 2NT with a 3-count, for instance. 5NT didn't play well), but we did know - and let the opponents know, in the authorized and required manner - that if there was a psychic at the table, it was 10-1 at least that it was my partner or I. Given that information - again, no UI at the table, no MI, no failure to Alert - if we were the pair, and we honestly divulged our proclivities to the TD on questioning, was there an infraction? If there's a difference, why? If "nothing at the table" again, why?
Also an interesting question: if we adjust based on "evidence of concealed partnership understanding", and it's not one of the jurisdictions (EBU "red psychic") where an Artificial Adjusted Score is required to be given, what would we assign?
When I go to sea, don't fear for me, Fear For The Storm -- Birdie and the Swansong (tSCoSI)