mr1303, on 2016-August-28, 10:12, said:
The opponents suggested to the TD at the end of the hand that 4D should be treated as a slam try, as that is usual over a gambling 3nt, and that South (me) should bid 4H as a cue or bid 6D.
I do not really follow the opps' argument. Even if we accept that the same system should apply, which in itself is a stretch, the correct call over 4
♦ in the most common rebid structure is 5
♦ to show club shortage. So by their own logic you did the right thing. A stronger argument from their side might be that partner's 4
♦ call might reasonably be a transfer after a "to play" 3NT overcall. That is the only logic I can see to make a good case against N-S here. After bidding 3NT to play and partner describing the call as "a big balanced hand", would noone consider that possibility even if they played it over 2
♣ - 2
♦; 3NT? The whole Gambling 3NT opening sub-thread looks like a complete red herring to me and essentially irrelevant as far as a ruling goes.
Without any specific agreement, you bid 3NT at your first turn to call. You hope that this is to play, although you haven't specifically discussed it. You think 3S would be Western Cue, and a 3NT opening would be gambling (solid minor, no outside stoppers).
Unfortunately, partner alerts your 3NT as unusual, showing both minors. He then bids 4D.
a) What does the UI suggest here? 4C would be P/C over a 3NT opening, but 4D is undiscussed.
b) What do you call now?