notproven, on 2016-April-28, 13:11, said:
Sorry Bigbenvic, you missed the point. In this auction, where east promises 2+♣, and the opponents surely have 10+♣, west can't have a club stack, and everybody at the table knows it. Therefore, in this auction west would never have a reason to double for penalties, given that he knows his side has 9+♠ and most of the points, and everybody at the table knows that, too.
It's called situational bidding, where the meaning of a bid depends upon inferences taken from the rest of the bidding.
In a different auction, where west is not known to be short, and a penalty double is a viable option, a cue bid would not be smart because it would be ambiguous. In the auction given, there is no ambiguity: west CANNOT be making a penalty double, ever.
Assuming 19 total trumps (you say they have 10 we have 9) no known double fit (because Pards didn't bid 3
♦!) Lets have a quick look at the possible results
We make 12, they make 7 5cX = +800 5s = +480 6s = +980 but are we bidding this every time?
We make 11, they make 8 5cX = +500 5s = +450 6s = -50 (or 100) can we stop every time it's right?
We make 10, they make 9 5cX = +300 5s = -50 (or 100 if doubled!)
In each of those cases there is more to be gained from taking the money than bidding on UNLESS we get to slam and it's right
Yes the total tricks could be 20 or 21 and yes we have the better point count, we could (and do) have a double fit so the Law could be +1 or +2 on top again which makes bidding on better but you don't know in this auction you are guessing. Which is why I like 3
♦ instead of the lazy 3
♠ so much!
I've seen many opponents, (including CHO) jump to 5 of a minor in these situations when they only have a 9 card fit, let alone 10 or 11. The more people play a wide ranging style of pre-empting the wider the range of hands they can have. Is 3
♣ a legit overcall or a pre-empt? If a pre-empt is it 6 or 7, if legit could it be 5? I prefer to have rules in bidding that are consistent, define when we are in a forcing auction, define when X is penalty or take-out (or other) Define when a pass becomes forcing within an auction ie we're in a GF or have b id game with clear intent to make etc.
Here the transfer is unknown, the super-accept is not GF so we are not in a game forcing situation. West knows what is going on, East doesn't. So a pass from West over 5
♣ is more needed IMO to show the weak transfer, rather than the void slam try hand?
This is more likely when using a weaker ranged no-trump, BUT we have assumed the 1nt was 15-17(18) when it is weaker I feel the likelihood of a west needing a pass to be a I give up or I have no more to say more likely and if so then a double needs to be penalty, the frequency of when we have a void vs when we need to decide to bid on, pass or penalise is I think greater than when we have a void in their suit. I haven't run the numbers that is just a gut feel!
In a new partnership had this happen - who is to blame as to missing slam(6D is good, 6S makes on the actual layout).Mostly the argument is about the meaning of 5D - is it cuebid or natural and over 5H, shoud guy with main spade suit move on?Edit: Form of scoring is BAM, although I figure it is not that significant here