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Declarer changing instructions

#1 User is offline   newmoon 

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Posted 2015-February-23, 09:49

This occurred last Saturday in a club Pairs event.

Declarer, in 3NT, is in dummy and states “run the diamonds from the top.”

After the third diamond she realises they don’t break, and before playing
the fourth diamond, she says “no more diamonds, play the spade.”

"Director" the opponents called.

What should happen now?
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#2 User is offline   RMB1 

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Posted 2015-February-23, 09:56

View Postnewmoon, on 2015-February-23, 09:49, said:

... “run the diamonds from the top.”

After the third diamond she realises they don’t break, and before playing the fourth diamond, she says “no more diamonds, play the spade.”


The WBF law commission have said that declarer can stop playing the suit at any stage: in this case, she can play a spade as long as RHO has not played to the fourth diamond.

This post has been edited by RMB1: 2015-February-23, 11:03

Robin

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#3 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2015-February-23, 10:40

RMB1, did you mean to add something when you replied to your own post?

#4 User is offline   axman 

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Posted 2015-February-23, 13:57

View PostRMB1, on 2015-February-23, 09:56, said:

The WBF law commission have said that declarer can stop playing the suit at any stage: in this case, she can play a spade as long as RHO has not played to the fourth diamond.


Certainly the WBFLC statement is contrary to law. Declarer has stated they are taking all those diamond tricks and that conforms to what L68 defines as a claim- and all that comes with it.
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2015-February-23, 14:44

View Postaxman, on 2015-February-23, 13:57, said:

Certainly the WBFLC statement is contrary to law. Declarer has stated they are taking all those diamond tricks and that conforms to what L68 defines as a claim- and all that comes with it.

No, declarer has merely instructed dummy to play all those diamonds. He hasn't explicitly stated how many of them are going to win.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#6 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 06:39

What should happen is that nothing should happen :)

(gawd... naive set theory is such a mix-up lol)
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#7 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 08:15

View Postgnasher, on 2015-February-23, 14:44, said:

No, declarer has merely instructed dummy to play all those diamonds. He hasn't explicitly stated how many of them are going to win.

Nor has he stated anything about what happens after the diamonds have been played.
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#8 User is offline   axman 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 09:23

View Posthelene_t, on 2015-February-24, 08:15, said:

Nor has he stated anything about what happens after the diamonds have been played.


That is impertinent and obtuse.

As to relevant matters: L68A Any statement to the effect that a contestant will win a specific number of tricks is a claim of those tricks.


'run the diamonds from the top' is a bridge euphemism for play from the top and win all the diamonds. That answers the question as to the specific number of tricks.

As to other relevant matters: L68D After any claim or concession, play ceases....

regards
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#9 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 09:47

View Postaxman, on 2015-February-24, 09:23, said:

'run the diamonds from the top' is a bridge euphemism for play from the top and win all the diamonds. That answers the question as to the specific number of tricks.

That's not how it's interpreted. It's considered a shortcut for designating the cards that dummy should play -- instead of saying "top heart" every trick, it's equivalent to saying that until you explicitly cancel the instruction.

Perhaps better wording would be "Start running the hearts from the top", but established practice is what it is.

#10 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 10:16

View Postaxman, on 2015-February-24, 09:23, said:

'run the diamonds from the top' is a bridge euphemism for play from the top and win all the diamonds. That answers the question as to the specific number of tricks.

Unless you also think it means '...and no more tricks' then it doesn't state a specific number of tricks. If you think it does mean that, you're putting a lot of words into declarer's mouth.
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#11 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 10:39

Declarer's intention was clearly to cash a few diamonds to see how they behave. I fail to see any irregularity.
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#12 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 10:48

OK, so when I ask dummy to play the ace of trumps I have claimed that trick and hence play ceases?
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#13 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 11:01

The protocol for this situation has long been established, and is as stated by Gnasher, Rmb1, Barmar, and Whereagles.

It is not a claim because the powers that be say it is not a claim. It is an instruction to Dummy which may be halted. However, the onus is on Declarer to stop the "running" in a timely manner because he has technically called for a card to be played from dummy. And whether Dummy has actually pulled that card or not, it would be/should be too late if next person has played to that trick.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#14 User is offline   chrism 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 11:21

Quote

As to relevant matters: L68A Any statement to the effect that a contestant will win a specific number of tricks is a claim of those tricks.


'run the diamonds from the top' is a bridge euphemism for play from the top and win all the diamonds. That answers the question as to the specific number of tricks.


Even if this were an assertion that all the diamonds are winning tricks (which it certainly need not be - declarer might well intend running the suit until opponents ruff in with a high trump, for example), it is not a statement that all and only the diamonds are winners, so there is no statement of a specific number of tricks. To interpret declarer's instruction as a claim is a perverse misinterpretation of the law, that I doubt even SB would try to justify.
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#15 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 11:23

View Postchrism, on 2015-February-24, 11:21, said:

To interpret declarer's instruction as a claim is a perverse misinterpretation of the law, that I doubt even SB would try to justify.

Have you met Paul Lamford yet? :rolleyes:
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#16 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 13:27

View Postwhereagles, on 2015-February-24, 10:39, said:

Declarer's intention was clearly to cash a few diamonds to see how they behave. I fail to see any irregularity.

The irregularity is in the way declarer gave his instructions to dummy. It's a violation of Law 46A, so not just an irregularity, it's an infraction.
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#17 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 16:19

"run the diamonds" means "play the top diamond." That's all it can mean, without "referring to a trick not in progress". Yes, I know that doesn't make sense - neither does any other interpretation of this, really.

What it means in practise is "I intend to play all the diamonds, but I reserve the right to stop if it turns out I miscalculated and they aren't all good, or I miscalculated and I can't afford to squeeze myself, or I've managed to dupe the defenders into miscalculating and giving me another winning option because they were expecting to *have to* make 6 pitches, or ..."

I don't like that - mostly because if you tell me you're playing the next 6 tricks as diamonds, I should be able to make my next 6 plays in any order - or at the same time, for that matter! But that's the way we interpret it, currently, and so I don't "run the diamonds" and don't accept "run the diamonds" from partner; and am *very* careful as a defender. But I know the interpretation; many don't, and they get no recourse, and that seems to me to be unfair.

I'd be happy if we interpreted "run the diamonds" as irrevocable; after a couple of gripes, players would stop doing this illegal and improper thing, and just call the card each time. But because there is no downside to declarer to doing this wrong thing, it spreads like a weed.

On the other hand, I'm an eternal optimist; it's only been 20 years since "you don't have to Announce 15-17 NTs any more" has been around, and that shibboleth isn't going away...
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#18 User is offline   Pig Trader 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 20:34

Law 46: “Run the clubs”
[WBFLC minutes 2000-01-12#6]

Quote

Declarers sometimes give an instruction to Dummy to run a suit and then leave him to do this without giving, as is procedurally correct, a separate instruction for each card. A question can arise as to when the second, or a later, card is played from dummy, since the Declarer is not able to stop play of the card once it is played. The Committee ruled that the card is deemed to be played when Declarer’s RHO follows to the trick.
However, the committee deprecates instructions given to Dummy in this irregular manner.


EBU White Book:

Quote

Suppose declarer instructs dummy to “run the clubs”. Declarer may change this instruction at a later trick, and a card from dummy may be changed until declarer’s RHO plays to the trick. At this point the card becomes played.

________________

Mycroft:

Quote

I don't like that - mostly because if you tell me you're playing the next 6 tricks as diamonds, I should be able to make my next 6 plays in any order - or at the same time, for that matter! But that's the way we interpret it, currently, and so I don't "run the diamonds" and don't accept "run the diamonds" from partner; and am *very* careful as a defender. But I know the interpretation; many don't, and they get no recourse, and that seems to me to be unfair.


There is a solution to that and I recollect that the relevant Law is 73F. If a defender can claim that he has been misled by a declarer "running" a suit (and who then stops running it) then an adjusted score can be awarded. But such a situation must be extremely rare and I have never heard of a TD call over such a thing, let alone any actual ruling of any adjustment.
Barrie Partridge, England
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#19 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 22:58

I am coming to the conclusion that this should be an infraction of a "should" law for which the director should be more inclined than usual to issue a PP. Better would be to change the wording of 46A to "shall" rather than "should".
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#20 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2015-February-24, 23:12

View Postblackshoe, on 2015-February-24, 22:58, said:

I am coming to the conclusion that this should be an infraction of a "should" law for which the director should be more inclined than usual to issue a PP. Better would be to change the wording of 46A to "shall" rather than "should".

You would be hard-pressed to justify a procedural penalty for a procedure directly addressed, expected, and covered in a WBF minute, and thus sanctioned there as well as in the British White Book.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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