Correcting 1NT to 2M When?
#1
Posted 2014-November-13, 10:26
When would you correct to 2M on a five-card suit and a less-than-invitational hand? Assume that you don't have a second suit which can be conveniently shown at the two-level.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#2
Posted 2014-November-13, 10:39
-gwnn
#3
Posted 2014-November-13, 11:22
I will not pull when I hold enough hcp to expect that we have slightly more than half the deck, and I have a balanced hand and I have scattered soft values. So after 1♦ 1♥ I would pass with something like Qxx Q10xxx Kx QJx or Jxx J9xxx KQx Qx
Note that my preference is for the 1N to not deny 4 spades. However some of my partners don't like this, so with them I would tend to pull more frequently if I held a doubleton spade.
#4
Posted 2014-November-13, 11:58
Never raising on a balanced hand with three cards
Nearly always rebidding your suit with five cards
The best player I've spoken to about this says he rebids five-card suits 95% of the time. Playing this style, I'm a big fan of rebidding 1S over 1H on 4-2 majors, but rebidding 1NT on 4-3 majors.
#5
Posted 2014-November-13, 12:00
to fear 1n (short suit outside openers minor). Vulnerable would be a
strong factor here.
If balanced I would correct if the suit is headed by the A KT9 if I had nothing
that looked like an entry no matter the overall power. Vulnerable wpuld be a
strong factor here.
If my suit was good 3 of top 5 honors (or AK) no matter if I had an entry or not
and would not care about power. Vulnerability is irrelevant here.
This means opener cannot assume anything about my hand or suit quality when I correct
and this is indeed a flaw but there are too many ways to show invitational hands so
this method of showing weak hands is designed to try and keep things safe. The fact that
I do not immediately convert 1n to 2M does not forbid me from doing so if 1n were x

or competing if the opps bid over 1n.
#6
Posted 2014-November-13, 13:50
1. If 1NT guarantees a balanced hand (except #3): pull.
2. If 1NT does not guarantee a balanced hand: then I'm playing in BBO vs a random, so I pull to hog the hand.. lol
3. If 1NT guarantees a balanced hand & we have a combined 21-23/22-24 & suit is weak & pard can play'em: leave it
Probability of 3 is ~1%

#7
Posted 2014-November-13, 15:12
Playing strong NT, effectively, if my partner can't have a stiff in my suit, I pull. I might be convinced to sit a lot more if partner will raise on 3 a significant fraction of the time such that if we do have an 8-card fit, I can expect no ruffs in the short hand.
#8
Posted 2014-November-13, 15:24
#9
Posted 2014-November-13, 15:48
-Defending 1 NT is heavy duty job-5-3 M fit can make magics also in 1 NT
-1 level lower.
-When (more often over 2M) they balance, I am better placed deciding when to sell out, double or compete
-Easier to balance for them over especially 2♥ compared to 1 NT (I am sure we all know and see hands where 1 NT is cold for one side and 2♠ for other side)
-I do rebid 1 NT with stiff in responder's suit
When do I pull? Weak hand with very little to none entries to my hand and good suit. Or with hands which I actually did not have a legit 1M response strength wise. Jxx KQTxx xx xxx ---I pull
KJx JTxxx xx Jxx --I pass
JT9xx x JTxx xxx -- I pull (yes I respond 1♠ with this)
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"
"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."
#10
Posted 2014-November-14, 15:40
When playing weak NTs, I'll normally pull to 2 M over an opening 1 NT (equivalent 1 m followed by 1 NT rebid by most SA pairs). Also over 1 m followed by a 1 NT rebid (a 15-17 NT hand), I'll pull to 2 M because most strong NT bidders are being transferred into the M anyhow.
When playing strong NTs, I'll normally rebid 2 M over a 1 NT rebid unless there's reason to believe 1 NT might play better (bad suit, some intermediates, scattered values).
#11
Posted 2014-November-15, 05:41
For what it is worth I will raise on three with a balanced hand and a low doubleton in an unbid suit.
I will frequently rebid 1NT with a singleton spade, but not with a singleton heart.
Accordingly I will only takeout into a five card spade suit if I can stomach to play in a 5-1 spade fit and the suit may not establish in notrumps.
Obviously you take out into KQJTx or AQJTx and often into QJT9x or KQJxx
I am more likely to take out into hearts than spades.
Rainer Herrmann
#12
Posted 2014-November-15, 06:02
Always when not 5332.
Always when weak.
Always when I have no possible side-entry.
Always with a suit of QJ10xx or better.
But as others have said it depends on how often partner will have three-card support, and how often he'll have a singleton.