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What do you think this should mean ?

#1 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 04:44

This was an auction we had at the club, I'll give the explanations below



1 shows 4
1 guarantees 5+/4
2 is not GF
3N shows extras
4 nat slam try
4 keycard
4 0/3
4 Q?
5 no
5 what does this mean ?

Partner's alternatives directly over 4 were:

4N - spade K
5// I have // K or Q, bid the grand with the other
5N would theoretically be a specific K ask, but there are likely to be better alternatives to this

I was pretty sure partner did not have the K, but needed K to make the grand try.

Anyway, my bid was obvious over 5, I bid 5, partner bid 6 and I had to decide whether to bid 7, I decided partner was probably looking at Kxxx, Axx, x, AQJxx with maybe an extra major suit Q (he ought to have just a touch more than the basic hand I gave), so 7 was quite likely to be on diamond K coming down in 3 or the heart finesse if partner didn't have Q so bid 7.

How would you approach this situation particularly if it's undiscussed ? (and yes partner shouldn't make a bid that was undiscussed, but we got to a decent grand that he then proceeded to put on the floor).
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#2 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 05:58

Partner is making a last train to grand off Q, hence he has 6 clubs probably on a 4216 , and thinks you could have 4 of them. Other meanings are possible but they are too complicated for me.
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#3 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 08:32

This has come up on BBF before. Playing a more traditional RKCB structure this would be a conditional king ask with a 6th club. If Responder has a 4th club they give a positive reply by showing a king; if not then they sign off in 6. Given that you do not seem to have a traditional king ask it is a little tougher but I guess it shows the K to go with that 6th club. With a 4th club and that diamond suit you would bid 7NT now (1+2+4+6); with only 3 clubs and a single spade stop 6 is enough.
(-: Zel :-)
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#4 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 08:45

I have issues with your RKC approach....
... but anyway, the 5 bid should NOT show a singleton in partner's bid suit...
I would think 5! would be a K-ask ( cheapest specific reply )... and I agree partner has 6 cards .
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#5 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 09:25

Except that I will never have 4 clubs here, I'd have started with either 2 with a good 5 card diamond suit and 4 clubs or an inverted 2 (not denying 4M), while I'd bid 1M with a 5 card major that was not good enough for the jump shift (HHxxx required and Hxxx trump, H=AKQ), this doesn't hold in diamonds, I'd just use the inverted 2.

The more I think about this now, I think his studious failure to cue spades indicates something like Q10xx, AQ, x, AQJxxx where what he really wants from me is a stiff ace of spades A, KJxx, AJxxx, K10x or similar which I'd bid the same way (this was not what he had, he should simply have bid 4N over 4 to show K).
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#6 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 10:29

I don't understand this thread.
If partner asks me for the queen of clubs, he hasn't got it himself.
Therefore, assuming this is matchpoints (you did say 'at the club') partner is merely asking if we have enough for 6NT rather than 6C.

I don't see how partner can have this putative Q10xx AQ x AQJxxx because he has no reason to ask for keycards with that hand. What was he planning to do opposite two?

(but to be honest I don't understand this thread at all because I can't construct a hand for partner that is able to ask for keycards over 4C but can't set the final contract when he gets the answer given that responder's hand is totally undefined)
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#7 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 10:40

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2014-February-24, 10:29, said:

I don't understand this thread.
If partner asks me for the queen of clubs, he hasn't got it himself.
Therefore, assuming this is matchpoints (you did say 'at the club') partner is merely asking if we have enough for 6NT rather than 6C.

I don't see how partner can have this putative Q10xx AQ x AQJxxx because he has no reason to ask for keycards with that hand. What was he planning to do opposite two?

(but to be honest I don't understand this thread at all because I can't construct a hand for partner that is able to ask for keycards over 4C but can't set the final contract when he gets the answer given that responder's hand is totally undefined)


Was actually teams (local league run by one of the clubs) and any continuation confirms all the keycards.

We tend to use kickback then ask for the other bits after as we can often stop in time. Opposite 2 he just bids the slam and hopes they don't cash 2 spades, there will be enough discards available as I will have every other high card outside spades.
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#8 User is offline   c_corgi 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 11:31

View PostCyberyeti, on 2014-February-24, 10:40, said:

...
We tend to use kickback then ask for the other bits after as we can often stop in time. Opposite 2 he just bids the slam and hopes they don't cash 2 spades, there will be enough discards available as I will have every other high card outside spades.


In that case, 5D should mean "Partner, please guess the final contract; if you guess wrong, I hope we get lucky."
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#9 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-February-24, 17:19

View Postc_corgi, on 2014-February-24, 11:31, said:

In that case, 5D should mean "Partner, please guess the final contract; if you guess wrong, I hope we get lucky."


With 1 keycard missing 6 will be finesse or better unless they have a cashing AK (I might well have a singleton), so partner would decide to bid like that. In fact he had K and badly misbid so he knew there weren't 2 cashing spades.
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