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Opening Bid 2/1 ACBL

#1 User is offline   dickiegera 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 09:45



Partner and I different thoughts on this hand.

I say that I would open this 2NT.

He chose to open1 and I responded 1NT.
He now bid 2, my suggestion was 2NT or 3NT.

Holding xxx,Jx,Jxx,A10987 I bid 3, he now bid 5 down 4. Could have saved it a trick or 2.
Diamonds were 6-0.

My thoughts are that by opening 1 if I bid a major even a 4 of that major is an underbid by opener and we could
easily miss a slam. 1NT reply by me creates a problem also. Opening 1 creates a rebid problem. Opening 2NT does not created as
much a problem.

Opinions appreciated.
Thank you
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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 10:11

2nt or 1d then 2h is fine.

over 3d pard should rebid 3nt not 5d,

If you respond a major pard can splinter and bid again.
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#3 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 16:50

dont let the results of 1 hand sway your thinking forever-- opening 2n with singleton
club could have turned out to be a compete disaster if you have a dia fit. IMO the 1d
opening followed by 2h was fine but over 3d opener should follow with 3s still searching
for 3n. over the 3s bid responder will have an extrmemly accurate impression of
openers hand and in this case has an easy 3n. Other hands could get us to 5d.

Not sure why opener suddenly gave up the search for 3n but that's where things went
wrong. Remember majors NT then minors as last resort because they require more
assets to make.
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#4 User is offline   GreenMan 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 20:18

Hmm, surprised to see so many votes for 1 then 2, since players in ACBL-land overwhelmingly treat this as 4 5 (if they understand about reverses at all), as the OP seems to have done. After partner skips over both majors to bid 1NT I'd raise to 3 without a second thought.

I slightly prefer 1 to open, but if my partner opted for 2NT I wouldn't second-guess him.
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#5 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 20:45

View Postdickiegera, on 2013-August-04, 09:45, said:


Partner and I different thoughts on this hand. I say that I would open this 2NT.
He chose to open1 and I responded 1NT. He now bid 2, my suggestion was 2NT or 3NT. Holding
x x x J x J x x A 10 9 8 7 I bid 3,
he now bid 5 down 4. Could have saved it a trick or 2. Diamonds were 6-0.
My thoughts are that by opening 1 if I bid a major even a 4 of that major is an underbid by opener and we could easily miss a slam. 1NT reply by me creates a problem also. Opening 1 creates a rebid problem. Opening 2NT does not created as much a problem.
IMO
  • As opener: 1 = 10, 2N = 9, 1 = 8. (3N is best, but 4H is playable even on the 4-2 fit)
  • After 1 - 1N -: 2 = 10, 3N = 9, 2N = 8.
  • After 1 - 1N -; 2 - 3: 3N = 10, 3 = 5

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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2013-August-04, 22:18

I would have opened 2NT. 1D followed by 2H shows 5D and 4H for everyone I know.
As the bidding went, after your 3D bid, he should have bid 3S. Your 3D bid is totally correct; if you bid 3NT without a S stopper here and xxx in S as suggested above, this is very poor.
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#7 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2013-August-05, 02:10

Why would you open 2NT anyway, unless that includes 22 counts. I'd just open 2 and rebid 2NT (showing 22-23), unless partner gives me some kind of positive response (which is not the case here). Opening NT isn't ideal though, because with a fit the hand has much more potential than you've shown. A fit can easily be lost. On the other hand, opening 1 and bidding 2NT next shows only 18-19HCP, which is even worse. Reversing shows 5+ but that's only a small lie ofcourse. Still it's a matter how you rate the stiff K. Optimists open their NT range (hoping K will count), pessimists open 1 (afraid that their K will drop under opps' Ace). When you open 1, all you can do is reverse. However, after 1-1NT-2-3 you can still pattern out with 3, after which partner can easily bid 3NT with such a stack.
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#8 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-August-05, 02:13

I would open 1 almost always because I'm not sure what my hand is worth as a point count value.

It helps that playing what I play I can show an 18+ 4441 with support with an unusual rebid.

I would have bid 3N rather than 5 on your sequence though.
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#9 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2013-August-05, 04:07

Hi,

#1 2NT is certainly a reasonable choice, 1D has a rebid problem,
but 1D is certainly not wrong.
#2 over 1NT bid 3NT, 2H should show 54.
The 1NT bidder will have clubs, he has limited his hand, will
have at most 10 HCP, bid the most likely contract, and get out of
the auction.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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