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2 club with interference

#1 User is offline   patroclo 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 13:00

Someone tell me how to answer after a 2 strong club open with interference of 2nd hand player.
Explain me general rules.
Thanks for reply.
An example:

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#2 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 13:48

I don't have any really good thoughts but I would like to hear if anyone playes something along these lines:

a. X holding something in their suit, maybe Qxxx and really nothing else so that partner can at least consider passing it out for penalties on a hand where game our way seems unlikely

b. Bid a decent five card suit

c. Pass if you have nothing in particular that you want to say.

d. Probably 2NT should be given some meaning that would make it unlikely the bid would ever come up.

This is very unimaginative I know, but it's pretty easy to remember and probably works pretty well.

On the hand shown I of course bid 3 but I imagine that is bid in practically any system. I suppose this is followed by 4 on my left and 5 from partner. I like to think I would then pass. I suppose it would make more often than not.
Ken
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#3 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 14:10

In general the "expert standard" seems to be:

Pass = some values but no real suit
Dbl = really bad hand
Bid = natural and a good hand

On the hand in question 3 is clear. However, it will be difficult to stop low here, because opener's hand really isn't a strong 2 opening. If we bid 3 and hear 4-5-Pass, couldn't opener have:

x AKQxxxx AKQx x?

In fact this looks more like a 2 opening than the actual hand (with a wasted spade queen, some missing heart honors, and only 17 high). Opposite this hand 6NT looks really good and I would bid it as south. Basically south has a slam force opposite a 2 opening (13-count and a trick source? wow) unless you can engineer things to bid RKC and find you are off two aces. Odds that strong two club opener has only one ace are pretty poor after all.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#4 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 14:29

My notes from 2004... Bridge World Standard :

DBL = weakest action ( like a "2nd negative" ).

Pass! = forcing [ Next DBL by Opener = balanced hand ( I presume 22-24 hcp ) ] .
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#5 User is offline   patroclo 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 17:23

The complete hand

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#6 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 17:37

So, indeed, there is no trouble taking eleven tricks with hearts as trump. As Adam noted, the problem is to be able to play in exactly 5. I noted that I liked to think that I would pass. Of course I like to think that because I see we are missing two aces. In practice, maybe I bid 5. Most likely so.

Even a more prosaic auction might be a little tough. N opens 1, there is a spade overcall, S bids his clubs, W bids 4. Well, there is a lot more known and shown this way. N can bid 5 and S, noting that N opened at the one level and that he, South, has already shown a decent hand, can pass. Some guesswork, but a better chance of getting it right I think.

Anyway, the OP asked for general comments on dealing with interference over 2. . So far the responses run toward the rather natural, except double for just showing a real bust. Suits me fine.
Ken
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#7 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2012-December-15, 19:34

it's impossible to avoid slam here once north makes a stupid 2 opening bid. west will pre-empt the auction too high for blackwood to be used and south will drive slam.
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#8 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2012-December-16, 08:12

I am a little more sympathetic with the 2 opening here although I do think that i would have opened it 1. 4 requires very bad luck to fail if partner has the Jack of hearts, and there is apt to be a reasonable play for 4 opposite most South hands, including many where partner will pass 1. Otoh, on hand like this an opening of 1 will never (never? well, hardly ever) be passed out. So my plan would be 1 and if it goes 1-pass-pass-something, then I bid 4. I really need so little for 4. Now if my hearts were spades, I think I would still open 1 but I would be a lot more nervous after two passes until I saw something other than a pass from rho.But with these hearts, my spade shortness, and my limited high card strength, I would be amazed if 1 is passed out given any random dealing of the other three hands. And once we are past that hurdle, subsequent bidding will be a lot easier.
Ken
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#9 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 03:39

I think this hand is tough even with a 1 opening, after 2 it is as good as impossible. Say it starts: 1 - (1) - 2 - (4). Should North really bid 5 here, presumably the same as they would without the AQ and Q? And should South know to bid on with 3 aces and nothing else? If you are playing the method where a direct 5 is a slam try/good hand and bidding 4NT followed by 5 merely competitive/weaker, then fine. But I would hope that would be stated.

So the question remains, assuming a 1 opening and the start above, what should North rebid over 4, and how should N-S proceed to find out whether to look for slam or not?

You can also look at this with respect to a strong artificial opening by assuming N-S play Precision. I assume North would then open 1 and after a 1 overcall and South making the systemic bid showing a game force with clubs, West again raises to 4. This gets us to a somewhat similar situation to the OP without having misbid.
(-: Zel :-)
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#10 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 03:59

3C on this hand. Eventually Blackwood. Your pd does not have a 2C opening.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#11 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 05:16

After 2 open, I play 2 as passive respond, but 2 as negative respond.
when 2 open with interference,responder's double show no values ,pass show some values with game force,bid suit show a decend hand with two top cards.
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#12 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 07:05

Hi,

pass is forcing, standárd FP rule set would be
X - penalty, Pass no clear direction (including weak hands), new suit natural,
pass followed by pulling openers reopening double showes add. strength.

This assumes, you dont have discussed this seq. specifically, see the reference to
Bridge World Standard, which makes sense, but only if you want to go more into
agreements.

I would pass, awaiting further development, I have no problem bidding my suit
at any level.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#13 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 07:16

2-(2)-4(solid suit)-P-4(kickback)-P-5(2 with Q)-P-P-P

If the man leads AJ well done, but in practice I make it.
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#14 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 07:28

View PostZelandakh, on 2012-December-17, 03:39, said:

I think this hand is tough even with a 1 opening, after 2 it is as good as impossible. Say it starts: 1 - (1) - 2 - (4). Should North really bid 5 here, presumably the same as they would without the AQ and Q? And should South know to bid on with 3 aces and nothing else? If you are playing the method where a direct 5 is a slam try/good hand and bidding 4NT followed by 5 merely competitive/weaker, then fine. But I would hope that would be stated.

So the question remains, assuming a 1 opening and the start above, what should North rebid over 4, and how should N-S proceed to find out whether to look for slam or not?

You can also look at this with respect to a strong artificial opening by assuming N-S play Precision. I assume North would then open 1 and after a 1 overcall and South making the systemic bid showing a game force with clubs, West again raises to 4. This gets us to a somewhat similar situation to the OP without having misbid.


I agree that it is tough. My views run something like this: If you are Meckwell, you have previously discussed this situation and you do whatever you have discussed. And anyway the opening would have been 1. For the rest of us, as N, after 1-(1)-2-(4)-?, I bid 5 because I think that I can probably make it ( the five level belongs to me, isn't that the saying? :) ), and this leaves South with a tough choice that I think he has a fair chance of getting right. And, most certainly, a chance of getting wrong.

I really have no idea how, if I were South, I would take 4NT over 4. I think that my preference would be that it is standard Blackwood, not rkc. But undiscussed, I would prefer that North not do this. Your post suggests you agree that without discussion, the meaning is vague at best so I think we are on the same page here.

I think opening 1 gives North the best chance of coping with anticipated trouble from the opponents, and then, for most of us, we just fall back on bid what you think you can make and hope we land on our feet. If South raises 5 to 6, maybe West will double! We can always hope.
Ken
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#15 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2012-December-17, 13:01

View PostCyberyeti, on 2012-December-17, 07:16, said:

2-(2)-4(solid suit)-P-4(kickback)-P-5(2 with Q)-P-P-P

If the man leads AJ well done, but in practice I make it.
If you get to bid 4 without invoking Law 27, I don't mind this auction. Now try it with what's really going to happen at the table :-)
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#16 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2012-December-18, 05:09

By the way ,I think opening 1 is best because there are too many lost tricks in this hand.so this embarassed opener somewhat.
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