Slam?
#1
Posted 2012-September-25, 17:37
H Void
D A987
C KQJ3
1S 2NT
3H 4D
?
MPs, you deal. 2NT was a limit + spade raise, 3H shows shortage and a non-minimum, GF, 4D was a cue.
What do you bid here?
#2
Posted 2012-September-25, 17:44
I would bid 4♥, which would show the ♥ void (or singleton ace).
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#3
Posted 2012-September-25, 17:48
(And 4♥ would show club control, not say anything about hearts, since partner denied club control.)
- billw55
#4
Posted 2012-September-25, 18:15
I can see that 4♥ would show club control, but why would it not say anything about hearts? Oh, perhaps you mean "anything new", since opener has already shown second round control with his 3♥ bid?
I suppose it may boil down to which one of us is a peer of the opening bidder.
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#5
Posted 2012-September-25, 19:09
lalldonn, does 4♥ really not show first-round control in hearts? What are the rules defining when you show a control twice that it might not have first-round control?
By the way why is this in the rulings forum? Sounds like it will be an interesting story!
#6
Posted 2012-September-25, 19:31
- Partner may have a hand good enough to take control and bid keycard or force to slam if he knows about our club control. Therefore, we must tell him if we have one.
- We may have a hand with a club control which is not good enough to risk going beyond 4♠.
- There is only one bid that doesn't bypass 4♠ and doesn't deny a club control. That is 4♥ so that's what it shows.
It's really just an application of last train. If partner has denied a control then the last train bid must promise that control. It can't also promise a control in the suit we are bidding (ignoring that in this particular example we have already promised one) since you might have a club control but no heart control, and based on the above reasons the club control must be shown.
Just imagine you hold KJxxx x Axxx KQx. You don't want to risk the 5 level in case partner is just inviting slam, as we would reject that invitation having already shown a non-minimum with heart shortness. If partner has Axxx Axx KJxx xx then the 5 level is in real danger though I would hardly blame partner for his slam try. But partner could have Axxx Ax KQxx Qxx in which case he just needs to know you have a club control to bid keycard and place the contract, and he wouldn't want to get to 5♠ in case you had KQJxx - AJxx JTxx since that can go down rather easily on a club ruff.
I didn't even notice this was in a laws forum. Weird
- billw55
#7
Posted 2012-September-26, 02:23
1: Does the 2N response deny the ability to splinter ?
2: What is 1♠-2N-4♥ ?
3: What would 3N rather than 4♦ have meant ?
I don't play any form of last train, so 4♥ would show the heart void as well as a club control, but I wouldn't have been so high in the first place.
#9
Posted 2012-September-26, 10:15
Your partner forgot to alert the 3H bid as showing shortage. After the 4D cue, this hand signed off in 4S. Partner had indeed forgotten that 3H shows shortage.
4S just made, losing a club and 2 trumps. Partner's hand was as follows:
9652
AKQ3
K5
642
Opponents call the director to the table. Do you adjust?
#11
Posted 2012-September-26, 11:21
How to avoid the ridiculously high exclusion bid pointed out by Blackshoe would be the subject of a non-laws thread; but it would involve 4H followed by RKC.
#12
Posted 2012-September-26, 11:33
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#13
Posted 2012-September-26, 11:47
#14
Posted 2012-September-26, 11:57
Even if they aren't playing exclusion then I still think the hand is worth a drive past 4♠ so that would be an LA.
- billw55
#15
Posted 2012-September-27, 03:15
lalldonn, on 2012-September-26, 11:57, said:
Isn't it "standard" to use 0314 responses to Exclusion (even when using 1430 responses to regular RKCB)? Then the response will be 5♠ (0 aces excluding hearts), which will end the auction.
Since we are told there were only 10 tricks in spades, one down at the 5-level may result in about the same poor score as bidding higher (noticing this was MP). However, the question may become wether we allow the player to "wake up" and realize that 5♥ is Exclusion. I think we need a bit more information about the players and their agreements to answer that.
John
#16
Posted 2012-September-27, 08:19
- billw55
#17
Posted 2012-September-27, 09:04
mr1303, on 2012-September-25, 17:37, said:
H Void
D A987
C KQJ3
1S 2NT
3H 4D
?
MPs, you deal. 2NT was a limit + spade raise, 3H shows shortage and a non-minimum, GF, 4D was a cue.
What do you bid here?
I think 4H followed by a move over 4S; or 5H exclusion, are both reasonable options. I would not be content to settle in 4S.
I do wonder whether 4D was something of a courtesy or said something about the suitability of responder's hand for slam (why didn't responder bid 3S to allow opener to show a club control and is there any inference available from this?).
#18
Posted 2012-September-27, 09:09
lalldonn, on 2012-September-25, 17:48, said:
iviehoff, on 2012-September-26, 08:21, said:
I think last train has passed into General Bridge Knowledge. Even most intermediates seem to play it now. I would assume its on for sure opposite any advanced player.
I would basically drive a slam now, not too fussed really about the sequence, probably would just bid 4h atm, then make another effort over 4S. Could bid exclusion. I don't think bidding/passing 4S is at all normal.
#19
Posted 2012-September-27, 10:00
phil_20686, on 2012-September-27, 09:09, said:
Altered your post to conform with the UI issue. That doesn't mean I disagree with what you said.
IMO, either bidding 4S now, or passing 4S after a 4H continuation, would be subject to adjustment and/or other adjudication --- the direct 4S being a more blatant use of UI than the delayed one.
Other posters are projecting how far the TD or AC should adjust the runaway train to go.