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How good is partners hand? Slam or not?

Poll: How good is partners hand? (14 member(s) have cast votes)

Do you agree with the bidding so far?

  1. Yes (4 votes [28.57%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 28.57%

  2. No (10 votes [71.43%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 71.43%

  3. N/A (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

Is partner making a slam try here?

  1. Yes (5 votes [35.71%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 35.71%

  2. No (9 votes [64.29%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 64.29%

  3. Not sure (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

Should you be thinking about raising with these juicy cover cards?

  1. Yes (1 votes [7.14%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 7.14%

  2. No (13 votes [92.86%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 92.86%

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#1 User is offline   phil_20686 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 05:02

You have the hand an auction:



So you tend not to open 1d with 4 cards in balanced hands. Its reasonably common to have two clubs for a 1c opener. 4d is COG, so it looks like partner is 4-6. It didn't seem right to play in a 4-3 heart fit with a spade tap likely coming, when partner might have good enough clubs for 5C.

Now answer the poll questions:

Other things I dont understand: How is this sequence different from bidding 4C over 1S when it comes back, that is surely 4-6 and GF. Why did partner not double 3S? Isnt that what you should always do if you care about whether partner has natural clubs. If partner does not have 4+ clubs he just bids 4H? Bidding 4C might then already show 6, and presumeably a worry about passing 3Sx. Does that indicate a slam try with a spade void?
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#2 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 05:39

I wouldn't think 4 was choice of games.

Still, even if it is, bidding it seems bizarre on a small doubleton club - you couldn't have fewer clubs could you? Just bid 4 and let partner bid 5 if he wants to. As it is, partner's choice of 5 was no doubt impacted by your implying some more cards in the suit.

Anyway, no, partner's not making a slam try - how can a CoG bid followed by choosing one of those games be a slam try?
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#3 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 06:30

Interesting. If I was bidding this hand at the table, I would have thought that after my support double, partner's 2 cue set hearts as trump. And therefore that 4, 4, and 5 are also all controls. Hence I would bid 5. The good news is, I would still pass partner's 5, perhaps recovering from the confusion.
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#4 User is offline   WellSpyder 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 07:55

View Postbillw55, on 2012-March-26, 06:30, said:

Interesting. If I was bidding this hand at the table, I would have thought that after my support double, partner's 2 cue set hearts as trump. And therefore that 4, 4, and 5 are also all controls. Hence I would bid 5. The good news is, I would still pass partner's 5, perhaps recovering from the confusion.

I don't normally play support doubles, but I would have thought it more likely that when partner bid 2 he was just trying to establish a forcing auction in whichever suit he bid next. So once he follows with 4, I think he is setting the trump suit in a F auction. Like wank, therefore, I don't expect 4 to be COG but rather a cue-bid for clubs, and I think I would bite the bullet and pass here, accepting I will have to play in my not very good club suit.

(Disclaimer: the above may be biased by knowing the hand, though I have tried to think about what I would expect these bids to mean. I held the same hand as shown as part of the other pair in the same direction in the same team of 8, and certainly didn't get to the right spot on the hand....)
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#5 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 09:30

The first question is if you bid inverted minor with 5+ 4 and Gameforcing. If you do, this means partner has made a slam try in with no control and you should correct fo 5.

If you always bid the 4card major first, it is less clear. I would guess that p made a slam try in clubs, which I would decline because of my low doubleton. AAK and nothing wasted in is great, but slam is too much of a gamble for me.
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#6 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 09:38

Continuations after a one level support double are very awkward. Why not play 'xy' when it comes back to responder? This eliminates the need for a general-force cue bid, and responder can clarify his intentions at a lower level.

This is an awkward hand. It seems partner just wants to play 5, since could have bid 4 with a card or 4N without a spade control but great trump, assuming that is your agreement.

Also agree with the_clown that playing an inverted 2 that can conceal a 4cM makes a lot of sense, especially with a 'short' club.
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#7 User is offline   WesleyC 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 11:09

I'm a little confused by your methods. If partner really has a strong hand with 6 & 4 why didn't they start by bidding 2C natural & forcing? (or whatever other method you use to show hands with a real club suit...)
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#8 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2012-March-26, 12:23

Wank nailed it imo.
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#9 User is offline   TS999 

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Posted 2012-April-02, 07:47

Hmmm, everyone seems to be in agreement on this one too.

Looks like you should probably listen a bit more to this partner in future Mr. Scotland!
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