Assuming you have normalish standard agreements where (1m) 2m would be michaels showing 55+ in the majors, does this still apply after (1m) p (1nt) 2m?
If you normally play equal level correction of doubles (so the auction (1♦) x (p) 2♣ (p) 2♥ shows both majors and not a strong 1 suiter in hearts) does this change the answer to the above?
The related question being what does (1m) p (1nt) X show?
Also, do any of your answers change if the cue bidder is a passed hand rather than 4th seat?
A hand came up this weekend where the auction 1♦ - P - 1NT - 2♦ occurred a number of times and half the time the the partner (with 3334 and 8 points) took it as natural and half the time they took it as michaels.
Page 1 of 1
cue of opponents minor after 1NT response means? (1m) p (1nt) 2m
#2
Posted 2008-August-04, 18:43
1st question the answer is yes.
I have never played equal level conversion where it applied to that auction so I don't know the answer.
The answer to third question is takeout.
If we are a passed hand then the answers don't change but I would have near perfect shape.
I have never played equal level conversion where it applied to that auction so I don't know the answer.
The answer to third question is takeout.
If we are a passed hand then the answers don't change but I would have near perfect shape.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.
- hrothgar
- hrothgar
#3
Posted 2008-August-04, 18:47
I play the cuebid is Michaels and think this is clearly better than natural. If the response had been 1M instead of 1NT, though, I would play the cuebid is natural.
1♦ - (P) - 1NT - (X) is just your everyday takeout double of ♦.
Being a PH does not change anything to me.
1♦ - (P) - 1NT - (X) is just your everyday takeout double of ♦.
Being a PH does not change anything to me.
Page 1 of 1

Help
