Posted 2021-October-29, 09:47
Note: while I am a (part-time) ACBL director, I never speak for the ACBL itself. I'm just following the rules you can read as well as I do.
Before I answer the question, note that while it's not relevant to the hand in the OP, the definition of Natural for "NT opening bids" includes a singleton A, K, *or Q*. And that is relevant on the Basic/+ charts for all "balanced" NT openings and overcalls, and on the Open chart for 1NT openings and overcalls. Open+ allows "natural" 1NT openers on small singletons in rounds of 6+ boards. Note: I'm paraphrasing here, skipping some "never happen" exceptions. For the exact regulations see the actual charts.
First, we find out if the bid was deliberate. If we conclude after investigation that opener, at the time they bid 1NT, believed they had A74 K832 AJ65 KT, then it was a misbid, and misbids are legal. If they're playing 4cM and intended to bid 1♠ and 1NT came out, and they didn't notice in time for L25A (or didn't know they had an option, or chose not to exercise it), again, legal misbid.
If the player, for whatever reason, decided that they should bid 1NT with the hand we see, then unless it's Forcing, they've made an illegal deviation (almost certainly, "evidence of implied (and illegal) agreement". So, we do the same thing we do with use of any other illegal agreement - determine if the opponents were damaged by it; if so, assign an adjusted score. We also, somewhat independently of the previous, determine if the offenders should be penalized in matchpoints for their actions; if so, issue the penalty (which will not accrue to the Nonoffending side), otherwise educate them about the legality and warn them that repetition of this will be treated much more harshly in future. And then, by preference, record the hand (either in the club, or to the recorder), to ensure that "repetition" won't be "the first time" to the next director.
The first question is if the illegal opening caused damage, and that would depend on knowing E-W overcalling system over 1NT. It looks to me like West chose to give up on game and preempt with a strong hand, hoping I assume either to win the auction in one try, or to encourage a misguess. Opposite a passed hand and a 1NT opener, that's not a bad idea, and I might have done that as well; this time West catches East with an absolute max pass and the club filler and North with a 1-count. If South had had ♣T7 and North the singleton, the same auction would have been perpetrated and would have been totally legal. Definitely if there was a way in E-W's defence to show a stronger hand - or a stronger club overcall - that leans in favour of "it was an illegal opening, but that wasn't the cause of E-W missing 3NT". Definitely the choice to bid 3♣ was a strong factor in East passing over 3♥ - a double would at least have got average plus, if not 400.
But let's look at what happens on a (more standard in the ACBL) 1♦ opening. It's arguable that 3♣ is the right call here, for the same reasons it might have been the right call over 1NT. Sure, it's likely that South is weaker, but North can have the K that we take out of South's hand just as easily as partner can. If, however, it seems that West would likely overcall 2♣ (remember, the NOS gets some benefit of the doubt), then it's quite reasonable that roads lead to 3NT (possibly even P-(1♦)-2♣; 2NT-3NT.) And with that helpful ♣A, it comes home.
Back in the "old L12C1e" days, that would probably be it. Unless we decide that the NOS' bidding judgement, not the illegal opener, caused the damage, they would have got the best result likely, and OS the worst result at all possible; both of those seem to be 3NT=. Now, with weighted scores, we can determine that sure, that is a reasonable line, but it's not *very* likely, and assign some fraction of 3NT=, some fraction of the table score (after a 3♣ overcall and the continued same auction), and possibly even some fraction of 3♣ undoubled (potentially via p-p-1♦-2♣; p-p-X-p; 2♥-X-p-3♣; AP or the like). Polling the table's peers will help determine the weights on the auctions.
This is in fact a very difficult ruling, and it wouldn't surprise me if a club director pulled out the "too many or too difficult to determine the options" trick (Law 12C1d) and assign A-/A+. I might even support them doing that *in the club*, especially if they weren't experienced enough/didn't have enough support to walk through the entire ruling.
If I decided that the illegal opening wasn't the cause of the damage, I would have to be very sure that the opponents understood that they don't get to "use their judgement" in this way to not issue a PP. If I decided it was, same thing, but it wouldn't surprise me if the ruling helped the opponents understand enough that they didn't need the extra 1/4 board. But my "being snowed" meter would be set very high.
Other RAs do issue automatic penalties for use of an illegal agreement. The ACBL chooses not to.
For those saying "I don't know how people play bridge with those silly restrictions": the object of the game - the object of any game - is to be the best contestant *within the rules*. There are strategies to score in hockey that would work really well if it wasn't for that pesky "puck must cross the blue line ahead of the players" rule(*). It would be much easier to throw touchdowns if the offensive line could use the "obvious solution" of grabbing the DL as they come at our quarterback (similarly, it would be easier to beat the other team if we were still allowed to hammer the QB into the ground or target their plant leg). The ACBL does not want systems where the only solution to 4441s with small singletons is to open 1NT; players' job is to figure out how to beat the field anyway. At least they know that the field can't do it either!
* Or, to head off the "but that's the same around the world" argument I know I'll get, if it wasn't for the automatic icing rule :-).
When I go to sea, don't fear for me, Fear For The Storm -- Birdie and the Swansong (tSCoSI)